[Jul-2023] Valid Way To Pass ISACA Exam Dumps with CISA Exam Study Guide
All CISA Dumps and Certified Information Systems Auditor Training Courses Help candidates to study and pass the Exams hassle-free!
ISACA CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) Exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the knowledge and expertise of IT professionals in the field of information systems audit, control, and security. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is designed for those who want to excel in their careers as information systems auditors and demonstrate their proficiency in auditing, assessing, and controlling complex IT systems. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is issued by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), a leading global professional association that focuses on IT governance, security, and risk management.
ISACA CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification designed to validate the knowledge and skills of professionals in the field of information systems auditing. CISA exam covers five domains that are essential to the role of an information systems auditor: Information Systems Auditing Process, Governance and Management of IT, Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, and Protection of Information Assets. Passing the CISA exam demonstrates that an individual possesses the necessary expertise to perform an effective information systems audit.
NEW QUESTION # 293
Data flow diagrams are used by IS auditors to:
- A. graphically summarize data paths and storage.
- B. order data hierarchically.
- C. highlight high-level data definitions.
- D. portray step-by-step details of data generation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data flow diagrams are used as aids to graph or chart data flow and storage. They trace the data from its origination to destination, highlighting the paths and storage of datA. They do not order data in any hierarchy. The flow of the data will not necessarily match any hierarchy or data generation order.
NEW QUESTION # 294
The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a:
- A. digital certificate.
- B. registration authority.
- C. digital signature.
- D. certificate authority,
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A digital certificate is an electronic document that declares a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message. A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i.e., registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate.
NEW QUESTION # 295
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when deploying closed-circuit television (CCTV) systems that use wireless communication links to transmit images between cameras and a receiver?
- A. Monitoring by security guards
- B. Encryption of transmissions
- C. Strategic placement of cameras
- D. Retention period of recordings
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION # 296
Proper segregation of duties normally does not prohibit a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities. True or false?
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Proper segregation of duties normally prohibits a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities.
NEW QUESTION # 297
To ensure an organization is complying with privacy requirements, an IS auditor should FIRST review:
- A. the adherence to organizational policies, standards and procedures.
- B. legal and regulatory requirements.
- C. the IT infrastructure.
- D. organizational policies, standards and procedures.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that the organization is complying with privacy issues, an IS auditor should address legal and regulatory requirements first. To comply with legal and regulatory requirements, organizations need to adopt the appropriate infrastructure. After understanding the legal and regulatory requirements, an IS auditor should evaluate organizational policies, standards and procedures to determine whether they adequately address the privacy requirements, and then review the adherence to these specific policies, standards and procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 298
Talking about biometric measurement, which of the following measures the percent of invalid users who
are incorrectly accepted in?
- A. false accept rate
- B. failure to enroll rate
- C. false reject rate
- D. failure to reject rate
- E. None of the choices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Performance of a biometric measure is usually referred to in terms of the false accept rate (FAR), the false
non match or reject rate (FRR), and the failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER). The FAR measures the percent
of invalid users who are incorrectly accepted in, while the FRR measures the percent of valid users who are
wrongly rejected.
NEW QUESTION # 299
Which of the following BEST protects evidence in a forensic investigation?
- A. Protecting the hardware of the affected system
- B. imaging the affected system
- C. Rebooting the affected system
- D. Powering down the affected system
Answer: B
Explanation:
This creates a duplicate copy of the data that can be used for examination, while preserving the original evidence in its original state. This helps to ensure that the data is not altered or corrupted during the examination process and the integrity of the evidence is maintained.
NEW QUESTION # 300
Which of the following is a management technique that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster, while reducing development costs and maintaining quality?
- A. Program evaluation review technique
- B. Function point analysis
- C. Rapid application development
- D. Critical path methodology
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Rapid application development is a management technique that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster, while reducing development costs and maintaining quality. The program evaluation review technique (PERT) and critical path methodology (CPM) are both planning and control techniques, while function point analysis is used for estimating the complexity of developing business applications.
NEW QUESTION # 301
Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization's business continuity plan (BCP)?
- A. The plan has not been signed by executive management.
- B. End users have not been trained on the latest version of the plan.
- C. The plan has not been updated in several years.
- D. No tabletop exercises have been conducted for the plan.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 302
The database administrator (DBA) suggests that DB efficiency can be improved by denormalizing some tables. This would result in:
- A. unauthorized accesses.
- B. increased redundancy.
- C. application malfunctions.
- D. loss of confidentiality.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Normalization is a design or optimization process for a relational database (DB) that minimizes redundancy; therefore, denormalization would increase redundancy. Redundancy which is usually considered positive when it is a question of resource availability is negative in a database environment, since it demands additional and otherwise unnecessary data handling efforts.
Denormalization is sometimes advisable for functional reasons. It should not cause loss of confidentiality, unauthorized accesses or application malfunctions.
NEW QUESTION # 303
Software is considered malware based on:
- A. its particular features.
- B. the intent of the creator.
- C. its location.
- D. its compatibility.
- E. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Malware is software designed to infiltrate or damage a computer system without the owner's informed consent. Software is considered malware based on the intent of the creator rather than any particular features. It includes computer viruses, worms, trojan horses, spyware, adware, and other malicious and unwanted software.
NEW QUESTION # 304
Which of the following layer of an enterprise data flow architecture is responsible for data copying, transformation in Data Warehouse (DW) format and quality control?
- A. Data Staging and quality layer
- B. Desktop Access Layer
- C. Data access layer
- D. Data Mart layer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Data Staging and quality layer -This layer is responsible for data copying, transformation into DW format and quality control. It is particularly important that only reliable data into core DW. This layer needs to be able to deal with problems periodically thrown by operational systems such as change to account number format and reuse of old accounts and customer numbers.
For CISA exam you should know below information about business intelligence:
Business intelligence(BI) is a broad field of IT encompasses the collection and analysis of information to assist decision making and assess organizational performance. To deliver effective BI, organizations need to design and implement a data architecture. The complete data architecture consists of two components The enterprise data flow architecture (EDFA) A logical data architecture
Various layers/components of this data flow architecture are as follows:
Presentation/desktop access layer - This is where end users directly deal with information. This layer includes familiar desktop tools such as spreadsheets, direct querying tools, reporting and analysis suits offered by vendors such as Congas and business objects, and purpose built application such as balanced source cards and digital dashboards.
Data Source Layer - Enterprise information derives from number of sources:
Operational data - Data captured and maintained by an organization's existing systems, and usually held in system-specific database or flat files.
External Data - Data provided to an organization by external sources. This could include data such as customer demographic and market share information.
Nonoperational data - Information needed by end user that is not currently maintained in a computer accessible format.
Core data warehouse -This is where all the data of interest to an organization is captured and organized to assist reporting and analysis. DWs are normally instituted as large relational databases. A property constituted DW should support three basic form of an inquiry.
Drilling up and drilling down - Using dimension of interest to the business, it should be possible to aggregate data as well as drill down. Attributes available at the more granular levels of the warehouse can also be used to refine the analysis.
Drill across - Use common attributes to access a cross section of information in the warehouse such as sum sales across all product lines by customer and group of customers according to length of association with the company.
Historical Analysis - The warehouse should support this by holding historical, time variant data. An example of historical analysis would be to report monthly store sales and then repeat the analysis using only customer who were preexisting at the start of the year in order to separate the effective new customer from the ability to generate repeat business with existing customers.
Data Mart Layer- Data mart represents subset of information from the core DW selected and organized to meet the needs of a particular business unit or business line. Data mart can be relational databases or some form on-line analytical processing (OLAP) data structure.
Data Staging and quality layer -This layer is responsible for data copying, transformation into DW format and quality control. It is particularly important that only reliable data into core DW. This layer needs to be able to deal with problems periodically thrown by operational systems such as change to account number format and reuse of old accounts and customer numbers.
Data Access Layer -This layer operates to connect the data storage and quality layer with data stores in the data source layer and, in the process, avoiding the need to know to know exactly how these data stores are organized. Technology now permits SQL access to data even if it is not stored in a relational database.
Data Preparation layer -This layer is concerned with the assembly and preparation of data for loading into data marts. The usual practice is to per-calculate the values that are loaded into OLAP data repositories to increase access speed. Data mining is concern with exploring large volume of data to determine patterns and trends of information. Data mining often identifies patterns that are counterintuitive due to number and complexity of data relationships. Data quality needs to be very high to not corrupt the result.
Metadata repository layer - Metadata are data about data. The information held in metadata layer needs to extend beyond data structure names and formats to provide detail on business purpose and context. The metadata layer should be comprehensive in scope, covering data as they flow between the various layers, including documenting transformation and validation rules.
Warehouse Management Layer -The function of this layer is the scheduling of the tasks necessary to build and maintain the DW and populate data marts. This layer is also involved in administration of security.
Application messaging layer -This layer is concerned with transporting information between the various layers. In addition to business data, this layer encompasses generation, storage and targeted communication of control messages.
Internet/Intranet layer - This layer is concerned with basic data communication. Included here are browser based user interface and TCP/IP networking.
Various analysis models used by data architects/ analysis follows:
Activity or swim-lane diagram - De-construct business processes.
Entity relationship diagram -Depict data entities and how they relate. These data analysis methods obviously play an important part in developing an enterprise data model. However, it is also crucial that knowledgeable business operative are involved in the process. This way proper understanding can be obtained of the business purpose and context of the data. This also mitigates the risk of replication of suboptimal data configuration from existing systems and database into DW.
The following were incorrect answers:
Desktop access layer or presentation layer is where end users directly deal with information. This layer includes familiar desktop tools such as spreadsheets, direct querying tools, reporting and analysis suits offered by vendors such as Congas and business objects, and purpose built application such as balanced source cards and digital dashboards.
Data Mart layer - Data mart represents subset of information from the core DW selected and organized to meet the needs of a particular business unit or business line. Data mart can be relational databases or some form on-line analytical processing (OLAP) data structure.
Data access layer - his layer operates to connect the data storage and quality layer with data stores in the data source layer and, in the process, avoiding the need to know to know exactly how these data stores are organized. Technology now permits SQL access to data even if it is not stored in a relational database.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 188
NEW QUESTION # 305
Which of the following threats is MOST effectively controlled by a firewall?
- A. Denial of service (DoS) attack
- B. Password cracking
- C. Network sniffing
- D. Network congestion
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 306
When developing a risk management program, what is the FIRST activity to be performed?
- A. Classification of data
- B. Threat assessment
- C. Criticality analysis
- D. Inventory of assets
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Identification of the assets to be protected is the first step in the development of a risk management program. A listing of the threats that can affect the performance of these assets and criticality analysis are later steps in the process. Data classification is required for defining access controls and in criticality analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 307
Which of the following is the MOST effective means of helping management and the IT strategy committee to monitor IT performance?
- A. Gap analysis
- B. Infrastructure monitoring reports
- C. Measurement of service levels against metrics
- D. End-user satisfaction surveys
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT
NEW QUESTION # 308
Which of the following acts as a decoy to detect active internet attacks?
- A. Honeypots
- B. Traffic analysis
- C. Firewalls
- D. Trapdoors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Honeypots are computer systems that are expressly set up to attract and trap individuals who attempt to
penetrate other individuals' computer systems. The concept of a honeypot is to learn from intruder's
actions. A properly designed and configured honeypot provides data on methods used to attack systems.
The data are then used to improve measures that could curb future attacks. A firewall is basically a
preventive measure. Trapdoors create a vulnerability that provides an opportunity for the insertion of
unauthorized code into a system. Traffic analysis is a type of passive attack.
NEW QUESTION # 309
A hard disk containing confidential data was damaged beyond repair. What should be done to the hard disk to prevent access to the data residing on it?
- A. Demagnetize the hard disk.
- B. Physically destroy the hard disk.
- C. Rewrite the hard disk with random Os and Is.
- D. Low-level format the hard disk.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Physically destroying the hard disk is the most economical and practical way to ensure that the data cannot be recovered. Rewriting data and low-level formatting are impractical, because the hard disk is damaged. Demagnetizing is an inefficient procedure, because it requires specialized and expensive equipment to be fully effective.
NEW QUESTION # 310
To minimize costs and improve service levels an outsourcer should seek which of the following contract clauses?
- A. Penalties for noncompliance
- B. Charges tied to variable cost metrics
- C. O/S and hardware refresh frequencies
- D. Gain-sharing performance bonuses
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the outsourcer will share a percentage of the achieved savings, gain-sharing performance bonuses provide a financial incentive to go above and beyond the stated terms of the contract and can lead to cost savings for the client. Refresh frequencies and penalties for noncompliance would only encourage the outsourcer to meet minimum requirements. Similarly, tying charges to variable cost metrics would not encourage the outsourcer to seek additional efficiencies that might benefit the client.
NEW QUESTION # 311
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to achieve the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?
- A. Provide periodic IT balanced scorecards to senior management.
- B. Align information security budget requests to organizational goals.
- C. Ensure information security aligns with IT strategy.
- D. Ensure information security efforts support business goals.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT
NEW QUESTION # 312
During an incident management audit, an IS auditor finds that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period Which of the following is the auditor's MOST important course of action?
- A. Confirm the resolution time of the incidents.
- B. Document the finding and present it to management.
- C. Determine if a root cause analysis was conducted
- D. Validate whether all incidents have been actioned.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 313
When continuous monitoring systems are being implemented, an IS auditor should FIRST identify:
- A. the location and format of output files
- B. the controls on which to focus
- C. high-risk areas within the organization
- D. applications that provide the highest financial risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION # 314
Naming conventions for system resources are important for access control because they:
- A. ensure that user access to resources is clearly and uniquely identified.
- B. reduce the number of rules required to adequately protect resources.
- C. ensure that resource names are not ambiguous.
- D. ensure that internationally recognized names are used to protect resources.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Naming conventions for system resources are important for the efficient administration of security controls. The conventions can be structured, so resources beginning with the same high-level qualifier can be governed by one or more generic rules. This reduces the number of rules required to adequately protect resources, which in turn facilitates security administration and maintenance efforts.
Reducing the number of rules required to protect resources allows for the grouping of resources and files by application, which makes it easier to provide access. Ensuring that resource names are not ambiguous cannot be achieved through the use of naming conventions. Ensuring the clear and unique identification of user access to resources is handled by access control rules, not naming conventions. Internationally recognized names are not required to control access to resources. Naming conventions tend to be based on how each organization wants to identify its resources.
NEW QUESTION # 315
Which of the following statement correctly describes the difference between IPSec and SSH protocols?
- A. IPSec works at the network layer where as SSH works at the application layer of an OSI Model
- B. IPSec works at the transport layer and SSH works at the network layer of an OSI Model
- C. IPSec works at the network layer and SSH works at the transport layer of an OSI Model
- D. IPSec works at the transport layer where as SSH works at the network layer of an OSI Model
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
For CISA exam you should know below information about SSH and IPSec protocol SSH -A client server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon. Similar to a VPN, SSH uses strong cryptography to protect data, including password, binary files and administrative commands, transmitted between system on a network. SSH is typically implemented between two parties by validating each other's credential via digital certificates. SSH is useful in securing Telnet and FTP services, and is implemented at the application layer, as opposed to operating at network layer (IPSec Implementation)
IPSec -The IP network layer packet security protocol establishes VPNsvia transport and tunnel mode encryption methods. For the transport method, the data portion of each packet referred to as the encapsulation security payload(ESP) is encrypted, achieving confidentiality over a process. In the tunnel mode, the ESP payload and its header's are encrypted. To achieve non-repudiation, an additional authentication header (AH) is applied. In establishing IPSec sessions in either mode, Security Association (SAs) are established. SAs defines which security parameters should be applied between communication parties as encryption algorithms, key initialization vector, life span of keys, etc. Within either ESP or AH header, respectively. An SAsis established when a 32-bit security parameter index (SPI) field is defined within the sending host. The SPI is unique identifier that enables the sending host to reference the security parameter to apply, as specified, on the receiving host. IPSec can be made more secure by using asymmetric encryption through the use of Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol/ Oakley (ISAKMP/Oakley), which allows the key management, use of public keys, negotiation, establishment, modification and deletion of SAs and attributes. For authentication, the sender uses digital certificates. The connection is made secure by supporting the generation, authentication, distribution of the SAs and those of the cryptographic keys.
The following were incorrect answers:
The other options presented are invalid as IPSec works at network layer where as SSH works at application layer of an OSI Model.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number352 and 353
NEW QUESTION # 316
Which of the following penetration tests would MOST effectively evaluate incident handling and response capabilities of an organization?
- A. internal testing
- B. Targeted testing
- C. Double-blind testing
- D. External testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
In a double-blind test, the administrator and security staff are not aware of the test, which will result in an assessment of the incident handling and response capability in an organization. In targeted, external, and internal testing, the system administrator and security staff are aware of the tests since they are informed before the start of the tests.
NEW QUESTION # 317
......
The CISA exam covers a range of topics, including information security governance, risk management, auditing, and control. It is a comprehensive exam that tests the candidate's knowledge and understanding of the principles and practices of information systems auditing. CISA exam is divided into four domains, each of which covers a different aspect of information systems auditing.
Get Latest [Jul-2023] Conduct effective penetration tests using Prep4away CISA: https://pass4sure.troytecdumps.com/CISA-troytec-exam-dumps.html