ISACA CISA Practice Test Pdf Exam Material
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Which skills and knowledge are required for passing the ISACA CISA Exam?
A person would have sufficient knowledge in how to perform systems analysis, documentation of security policy implementation including full life cycle assessment from design and development through maintenance and compliance monitoring as well as designing system architectures with an emphasis on safeguarding information assets both physical and virtual. CISA certification validates that an individual has the competence, sufficient knowledge, skill, experience, and training to do these tasks. It is an important credential for individuals seeking entry-level employment in IT auditing or assurance. Individuals who are already employed in the IT industry may choose to pursue CISA Certification to improve job opportunities or increase their salaries.
NEW QUESTION # 219
Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device?
- A. Gateway
- B. Router
- C. Repeater
- D. Bridge
Answer: D
Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
NEW QUESTION # 220
Which of the following would be the MOST secure firewall system?
- A. Screened-subnet firewall
- B. Dual-homed firewall
- C. Stateful-inspection firewall
- D. Screened-host firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
A screened-subnet firewall, also used as a demilitarized zone (DMZ), utilizes two packet filtering routers
and a bastion host. This provides the most secure firewall system, since it supports both network- and
application-level security while defining a separate DMZ network. A screened-host firewall utilizes a packet
filtering router and a bastion host. This approach implements basic network layer security (packet filtering)
and application server security (proxy services). A dual- homed firewall system is a more restrictive form of
a screened-host firewall system, configuring one interface for information servers and another for private
network host computers. A stateful-inspection firewall working at the transport layer keeps track of the
destination IP address of each packet that leaves the organization's internal network and allows a reply
from the recorded IP addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 221
Which of the following BEST enables an IS auditor to objectively determine the performance of an IT business process?
- A. Control self-assessment (CSA) questionnaire
- B. Capability maturity models
- C. Management sign-off on performance reports
- D. Recalculated key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 222
Which of the following provides the evidence that network filters are functioning?
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- A. Analyzing network performance
- B. Reviewing network filtering policy
- C. Reviewing network configuration rules
- D. Performing network port scans
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 223
The PRIMARY focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that:
- A. user access controls have been adequately designed.
- B. enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with.
- C. acceptance testing has been properly executed.
- D. user requirements have been met.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met. User requirements are specifications that define what users need or expect from a system or service, such as functionality, usability, reliability, etc. User requirements are usually gathered and documented at the beginning of a project, and used as a basis for designing, developing, testing, and implementing a system or service. A post-implementation review is an evaluation that assesses whether a system or service meets its objectives and delivers its expected benefits after it has been implemented. The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met, as this can indicate whether the system or service satisfies the user needs and expectations, provides value and quality to the users, and supports the user goals and tasks. Enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. EA is a framework that defines how an organization's business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure are aligned and integrated to support its vision and strategy. EA has been complied with, as this can indicate whether the system or service fits with the organization's current and future state, and follows the organization's standards and principles. Acceptance testing has been properly executed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. Acceptance testing is a process that verifies whether a system or service meets the user requirements and expectations before it is accepted by the users or stakeholders. Acceptance testing has been properly executed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has been tested and validated by the users or stakeholders, and whether any issues or defects have been identified and resolved.
User access controls have been adequately designed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. User access controls are mechanisms that ensure that only authorized users can access or use a system or service, and prevent unauthorized access or use. User access controls have been adequately designed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has appropriate security and privacy measures in place, and whether any risks or threats have been mitigated.
NEW QUESTION # 224
A data center's physical access log system captures each visitor's identification document numbers along with the visitor's photo. Which of the following sampling methods would be MOST useful to an IS auditor conducting compliance testing for the effectiveness of the system?
- A. Variable sampling
- B. Quota sampling
- C. Haphazard sampling
- D. Attribute sampling
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 225
Which of the following software development methods is based on iterative and incremental development, where requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration between self-organizing, cross-functional teams?
- A. Software prototyping
- B. Rapid application development
- C. Component based development
- D. Agile Development
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation Explanation:
For your exam you should know below information about agile development:
Agile software development is a group of software development methods based on iterative and incremental development, where requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration between self- organizing, cross-functional teams. It promotes adaptive planning, evolutionary development and delivery, a time-boxed iterative approach, and encourages rapid and flexible response to change. It is a conceptual framework that promotes foreseen tight iterations throughout the development cycle.
Agile Development
The Agile Manifesto introduced the term in 2001. Since then, the Agile Movement, with all its values, principles, methods, practices, tools, champions and practitioners, philosophies and cultures, has significantly changed the landscape of the modern software engineering and commercial software development in the Internet era.
Agile principles
The Agile Manifesto is based on twelve principles:
Customer satisfaction by rapid delivery of useful software
Welcome changing requirements, even late in development
Working software is delivered frequently (weeks rather than months)
Close, daily cooperation between business people and developers
Projects are built around motivated individuals, who should be trusted
Face-to-face conversation is the best form of communication (co-location) Working software is the principal measure of progress Sustainable development, able to maintain a constant pace Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design Simplicity-the art of maximizing the amount of work not done-is essential Self-organizing teams Regular adaptation to changing circumstances What is Scrum?
Scrum is the most popular way of introducing Agility due to its simplicity and flexibility. Because of this popularity, many organizations claim to be "doing Scrum" but aren't doing anything close to Scrum's actual definition. Scrum emphasizes empirical feedback, team self-management, and striving to build properly tested product increments within short iterations. Doing Scrum as it's actually defined usually comes into conflict with existing habits at established non-Agile organizations.
The following were incorrect answers:
Software prototyping- Software prototyping, refers to the activity of creating prototypes of software applications, i.e., incomplete versions of the software program being developed. It is an activity that can occur in software development and is comparable to prototyping as known from other fields, such as mechanical engineering or manufacturing.
Rapid application development (RAD) is a software development methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping. The "planning" of software developed using RAD is interleaved with writing the software itself. The lack of extensive per-planning generally allows software to be written much faster, and makes it easier to change requirements.
Component Based Development - It is a reuse-based approach to defining, implementing and composing loosely coupled independent components into systems. This practice aims to bring about an equally wide- ranging degree of benefits in both the short-term and the long-term for the software itself and for organizations that sponsor such software.
Reference:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 194
NEW QUESTION # 226
Which of the following BEST enables an organization's information security team to correlate and aggregate log files from different sources?
- A. Security information and event management (SIEM)
- B. Vulnerability and threat management
- C. Endpoint security monitoring system
- D. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
SIEM systems are specifically designed to collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from multiple sources such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), servers, and applications. SIEM platforms analyze this data in real time to identify potential security incidents, detect patterns of suspicious behavior, and provide centralized monitoring and alerting capabilities.
While an IDS, endpoint security monitoring, and vulnerability management tools each serve important security functions, they are not designed primarily for aggregating and correlating logs across diverse systems like a SIEM.
NEW QUESTION # 227
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of performing incremental backups instead of full backups?
- A. Incremental backups are a more accurate method of backing up data.
- B. Incremental backups require less media space and backup time.
- C. Incremental backups copy all data that has been updated and created.
- D. Incremental backup restoration is faster and easier.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 228
Which of the following is MOST critical to the success of an information security program?
- A. Integration business and information security
- B. Alignment information security with IT objectives
- C. Management's commitment to information security
- D. User accountability for information security
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 229
An IS auditor is reviewing access to an application to determine whether the 10 most recent "new user"
forms were correctly authorized. This is an example of:
- A. compliance testing.
- B. variable sampling.
- C. substantive testing.
- D. stop-or-go sampling.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Compliance testing determines whether controls are being applied in compliance with policy. This includes
tests to determine whether new accounts were appropriately authorized. Variable sampling is used to
estimate numerical values, such as dollar values. Substantive testing substantiates the integrity of actual
processing; such as balances on financial statements. The development of substantive tests is often
dependent on the outcome of compliance tests. If compliance tests indicate that there are adequate
internal controls, then substantive tests can be minimized. Stop-or-go sampling allows a test to be stopped
as early as possible and is not appropriate for checking whether procedures have been followed.
NEW QUESTION # 230
Which of the following is the MOST efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care?
- A. Software as a Service (SaaS) provider
- B. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider
- C. Dynamic localization
- D. Network segmentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care is B. Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. SaaS providers offer cloud-based services that allow organizations to access applications, data, and infrastructure on demand, making it easier to access patient data no matter where the patient is located. Reference: ISACA CISA Study Manual, section 5.3.3.1.
NEW QUESTION # 231
A manufacturing firm wants to automate its invoice payment system. Objectives state that the system should require considerably less time for review and authorization and the system should be capable of identifying errors that require follow up. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?
- A. Outsourcing the function to a firm specializing in automated payments and accounts receivable/invoice processing
- B. Reengineering the existing processing and redesigning the existing system
- C. Establishing an EDI system of electronic business documents and transactions with key suppliers, computer to computer, in a standard format
- D. Establishing an inter-networked system of client servers with suppliers for increased efficiencies
Answer: C
Explanation:
EDI is the best answer. Properly implemented (e.g., agreements with trading partners transaction standards, controls over network security mechanisms in conjunction with application controls), EDI is best suited to identify and follow up on errors more quickly, given reduced opportunities for review and authorization.
NEW QUESTION # 232
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the effectiveness of application system controls?
- A. Removal of manual processing steps
- B. Unresolved regulatory compliance issues
- C. Collusion between employees
- D. inadequate procedure manuals
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Collusion is an active attack that can be sustained and is difficult to identify since even well-thought-out application controls may be circumvented. The other choices do not impact well-designed application controls.
NEW QUESTION # 233
When auditing the IT governance of an organization planning to outsource a critical financial application to a cloud vendor, the MOST important consideration for the auditor should be:
- A. alignment with business requirements.
- B. alignment with industry standards.
- C. the cost of the outsourced system.
- D. the inclusion of a service termination clause.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 234
An organization is considering using production data for testing a new application's functionality.
Which of the following data protection techniques would BEST ensure that personal data cannot be inadvertently recovered in test environments while also reducing the need for strict confidentiality of the data?
- A. Data encryption
- B. Data normalization
- C. Data anonymization
- D. Data minimization
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 235
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