Updated Oct 04, 2026 Certification Exam CRISC Dumps - Practice Test Questions
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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) Exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge of professionals in the field of information systems risk management. The CRISC certification is designed for individuals who are responsible for identifying and managing IT risks within their organization. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification demonstrates an individual's ability to design, implement, monitor and maintain effective risk management programs that align with business goals and objectives.
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NEW QUESTION # 578
What are the three PRIMARY steps to be taken to initialize the project?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Define requirements
- B. Conduct a feasibility study
- C. Plan risk management
- D. Acquire software
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Projects are initiated by sponsors who gather the information required to gain approval for the project to be created. Information often compiled into the terms of a project charter includes the objective of the project, business case and problem statement, stakeholders in the system to be produced, and project manager and sponsor.
Following are the steps to initiate the project:
Conduct a feasibility study: Feasibility study starts once initial approval has been given to move forward
with a project, and includes an analysis to clearly define the need and to identify alternatives for addressing the need. A feasibility study involves:
- Analyzing the benefits and solutions for the identified problem area
- Development of a business case that states the strategic benefits of implementing the system either in productivity gains or in future cost avoidance and identifies and quantifies the cost savings of the new system.
- Estimation of a payback schedule for the cost incurred in implementing the system or shows the projected return on investment (ROI) Define requirements: Requirements include:
- Business requirements containing descriptions of what a system should do
- Functional requirements and use case models describing how users will interact with a system
- Technical requirements and design specifications and coding specifications describing how the system will interact, conditions under which the system will operate and the information criteria the system should meet.
Acquire software: Acquiring software involves building new or modifying existing hardware or software
after final approval by the stakeholder, which is not a phase in the standard SDLC process. If a decision was reached to acquire rather than develop software, this task should occur after defining requirements.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Risk management is planned latter in project development process, and not during initialization.
NEW QUESTION # 579
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?
- A. Service level agreements
- B. Accountability matrix
- C. Vendor references
- D. Benchmarking data
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 580
An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the
BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?
- A. Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.
- B. Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.
- C. Transfer a read-only version of the data.
- D. Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using a VPN ensures the secure transmission of sensitive data over a public network by encrypting the
communication channel. This mitigates risks such as interception or unauthorized access, aligning withData
Protection and Privacy Standards.
NEW QUESTION # 581
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are
made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?
- A. Enhanced awareness of risk management
- B. Optimized risk treatment decisions
- C. Improved collaboration among risk professionals
- D. Improved senior management communication
Answer: B
Explanation:
The greatest benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the
completion of a risk assessment is optimized risk treatment decisions. Risk treatment decisions are the choices
made by the organization on how to respond to the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring,mitigating,
or accepting them. Optimized risk treatment decisions are those that align with the organizational risk appetite
and objectives, and provide the best balance between the costs and benefits of the risk response actions.
Updating the risk register promptly after the completion of a risk assessment helps to optimize risk treatment
decisions by providing the most current and accurate information on the risk exposure and control
environment. By updating the risk register, the organization can ensure that the risk scenarios, risk levels, risk
owners, risk responses, and risk indicators are consistent with the risk assessment results and reflect the
changes in the internal and external environment. Updating the risk register also helps to prioritize the risks
and allocate the resources more effectively and efficiently for risk treatment. Updating the risk register also
facilitates the communication, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk
management and control processes.
The other options are not the greatest benefits to an organization when updates to the risk register are made
promptly after the completion of a risk assessment. Improved senior management communication is a benefit
of updating the risk register, as it helps to inform and involve the senior management in the risk management
and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Enhanced awareness of risk management is a benefit of
updating the risk register, as it helps to educate and engage the staff and other stakeholders in the risk
management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Improved collaboration among risk
professionals is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to coordinate and integrate the efforts
andexpertise of the risk professionals, but it is not the greatest benefit. References = Risk Register: Examples,
Benefits, and Best Practices, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Discover 10 major benefits for keeping a risk
register
NEW QUESTION # 582
After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?
- A. The recommend changes to the IoT policy
- B. To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices
- C. To confirm the impact to the risk profile
- D. The add new controls to mitigate the risk
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 583
A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:
- A. conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.
- B. identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.
- C. modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.
- D. collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 584
When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?
- A. Actor and threat type of the risk scenario
- B. Likelihood and impact of the risk scenario
- C. Historical losses due to past risk events
- D. Cost to reduce the impact and likelihood
Answer: B
Explanation:
* A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information about the risks that may affect the organization's objectives, such as the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, status, owner, response, etc.
* When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, the most important information to include is the likelihood and impact of the risk scenario. This means that the risk register should reflect the current or updated estimates of the probability and consequence of the risk scenario, based on the risk analysis and evaluation methods and criteria.
* The likelihood and impact of the risk scenario helps to determine the risk level and priority, select the most appropriate risk response, allocate the resources and budget for risk management, and monitor and report the risk performance and outcomes.
* The other options are not the most important information to include when updating the risk register after a risk assessment. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
* Risk IT Framework, page 29
* Information Technology & Security, page 23
* Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 21
NEW QUESTION # 585
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?
- A. Regularly monitoring the project plan
- B. Reviewing the maturity of the control environment
- C. Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register
- D. Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan would best help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed, as it involves verifying the effectiveness and efficiency of the implemented risk response actions and identifying any gaps or changes in the risk profile. Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan helps to:
* Confirm that the controls are operating as intended and producing the desired outcomes
* Detect any deviations, errors, or weaknesses in the controls and their performance
* Evaluate the adequacy and appropriateness of the controls in relation to the current risk environment and the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance
* Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address any issues or deficiencies in the controls
* Update the risk register and the risk treatment plan to reflect the current risk status and the residual risk levels References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 215-2161
NEW QUESTION # 586
A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?
- A. Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.
- B. Implement equivalent security in the test environment.
- C. Prevent the use of production data for test purposes
- D. Enable data encryption in the test environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Masking data before being transferred to the test environment is the best recommendation to address the situation where sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with realistic but fictitious data, preserving the format, structure, and meaning of the original data. Data masking ensures that the test data is sufficiently anonymized and de-identified, while still maintaining its functionality and validity for testing purposes. Data masking also reduces the risk of data leakage, exposure, or breach in the test environment, which may have lower security controls than the production environment. The other options are not the best recommendations, as they do not adequately protect the sensitive data or meet the testing requirements. Enabling data encryption in the test environment may protect the data from unauthorized access, but it does not prevent the data from being decrypted by authorized users who may misuse or mishandle it.
Implementing equivalent security in the test environment may be costly, complex, or impractical, and it may not be feasible to replicate the same level of security controls as in the production environment. Preventing the use of production data for test purposes may not be possible or desirable, as production data may be required to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and quality of the testing results. References = P = NP: Cloud data protection in vulnerable non-production environments ...; Data masking secures sensitive data in non-production environments ...; CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards | Quizlet
NEW QUESTION # 587
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has
decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?
- A. Optimize the control environment.
- B. Reduce the risk management budget.
- C. Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.
- D. Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The level of risk in the IT risk profile is the aggregate measure of the likelihood and impact of IT-related risks
that may affect the enterprise's objectives and operations.
The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. It
is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the enterprise's strategy and culture.
If the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite, it means
that the enterprise has more capacity and opportunity to take on additional risks that may offer higher rewards
or benefits.
The best recommendation in this situation is to optimize the control environment, which is the set of policies,
procedures, standards, and practices that provide the foundation for managing IT risks and controls.
Optimizing the control environment means enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the controls,
reducing the costs and complexity of compliance, and aligning the controls with the enterprise's objectives
and values.
Optimizing the control environment can help the enterprise to achieve the optimal balance between risk and
return, and to leverage its risk management capabilities to create and protect value.
The other options are not the best recommendations, because they do not address the opportunity to improve
the enterprise's performance and resilience.
Realigning risk appetite to the current risk level may result in missing out on potential gains or advantages
that could be obtained by taking more risks within the acceptable range.
Decreasing the number of related risk scenarios may reduce the scope and depth of risk analysis and
reporting, and impair the enterprise's ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks.
Reducing the risk management budget may compromise the quality and reliability of the risk management
process and activities, and weaken the enterprise's risk culture and governance. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 145
NEW QUESTION # 588
An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?
- A. Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios
- B. Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure
- C. Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture
- D. Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture is the greatest barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives, because it hinders the alignment and integration of risk management across the organization. Risk culture is the set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how risk is perceived and managed in an organization. A risk universe is a comprehensive and structured representation of all the sources and types of risk that an organization faces. Developing a risk universe requires a common understanding of the organization's risk culture, as it affects the risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy of the organization. Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops, lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure, and lack of an integrated risk management system are all challenges that may affect the development of a risk universe, but they are not the greatest barrier, as they can be overcome with appropriate tools and techniques. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section
2.2.1, page 44
NEW QUESTION # 589
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?
- A. Achieve business objectives
- B. Identify threats and vulnerabilities.
- C. Identify and analyze risk.
- D. Minimi2e business disruptions.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 590
Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?
- A. Classification of risk profiles
- B. Periodic review of the risk register
- C. Monitoring of high-risk areas
- D. Assignment of risk ownership
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that affect an organization, a business unit, a process, or a
project. A risk profile can help stakeholders understand the current and potential exposure to various sources
of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. Classification of risk profiles is the process of
grouping and categorizing risks based on common characteristics, such as source, impact, likelihood, or
response strategy. Classification of risk profiles can help communicate risk assessment results to stakeholders
by providing a clear and consistent way of presenting and comparing risks across different domains, levels, or
perspectives. Classification of risk profiles can also help identify patterns, trends, and interrelationships
among risks, and facilitate the allocation of resources and responsibilities for risk management. References =
Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting,
Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
NEW QUESTION # 591
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?
- A. It validates the organization's risk appetite.
- B. It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.
- C. It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.
- D. It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment is the greatest benefit because it enables the organization to prioritize and respond to the most significant risks in a timely manner. The risk register is a tool that records and tracks the current status of risks, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. By updating the risk register with the results of a risk assessment, the organization can ensure that the risk information is accurate, relevant, and actionable. Maintaining evidence of compliance with risk policy, validating the organization's risk appetite, and helping to mitigate internal and external risk factors are all possible benefits of updating the risk register, but they are not the greatest benefit, as they do not directly support risk-based decision making. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
NEW QUESTION # 592
You are the project manager of GHT project. Your project team is in the process of identifying project risks on your current project. The team has the option to use all of the following tools and techniques to diagram some of these potential risks EXCEPT for which one?
- A. Influence diagram
- B. Ishikawa diagram
- C. Process flowchart
- D. Decision tree diagram
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Decision tree diagrams are used during the Quantitative risk analysis process and not in risk identification.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: All the these options are diagrammatical techniques used in the Identify risks process.
NEW QUESTION # 593
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?
- A. Implement role-based access.
- B. Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.
- C. Limit access to senior management only.
- D. Encrypt the risk register.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk register is a document that contains information about potential cybersecurity risks that could threaten a project's success, or even the business itself2. Therefore, it is important to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the risk register from unauthorized or inappropriate access, modification, or disclosure. One way to do this is to implement role-based access, which is a method of restricting access to the risk register based on the roles or responsibilities of the users1. This way, only authorized users who need to view or edit the risk register for legitimate purposes can do so, and the access rights can be revoked or modified as needed. This would most effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in the risk register. The other options are not as effective or feasible as option C, as they do not address the need to balance the security and availability of the risk register. Option A, limiting access to senior management only, would compromise the availability and usefulness of the risk register, as other stakeholders such as project managers, risk owners, or auditors may need to access the risk register for risk identification, analysis, response, or monitoring purposes3. Option B, encrypting the risk register, would enhance the security of the risk register, but it would not prevent authorized users from exposing the vulnerabilities to unauthorized parties, either intentionally or unintentionally. Encryption also adds complexity and cost to the risk register management process, and may affect the performance or usability of the risk register4. Option D, requiring users to sign a confidentiality agreement, would rely on the compliance and ethics of the users, but it would not prevent or detect any breaches of the agreement. A confidentiality agreement also does not specify the access rights or roles of the users, and may not be legally enforceable in some cases5.
NEW QUESTION # 594
Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?
- A. There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets
- B. Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored
- C. The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process
- D. Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Accurate asset inventories depend on havingformal, standardized processes for onboarding new assets.
ISACA emphasizes that without proper onboarding and updating procedures, asset data quickly becomes inaccurate and unreliable for risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 595
You are the project manager of the NHQ project in Bluewell Inc. The project has an asset valued at
$200,000 and is subjected to an exposure factor of 45 percent. If the annual rate of occurrence of loss in this project is once a month, then what will be the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) of the project?
- A. $ 90,000
- B. $ 2,160,000
- C. $ 95,000
- D. $ 108,000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The ALE of this project will be $ 108,000.
Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Quantitative Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows:
SLE = Asset value * Exposure factor
Therefore,
SLE = 200,000 * 0.45
= $ 90,000
As the loss is occurring once every month, therefore ARO is 12. Now ALE can be calculated as follows:
ALE = SLE * ARO
= 90,000 * 12
= $ 108,000
NEW QUESTION # 596
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?
- A. Increased number of firewall rules
- B. Lack of agreed-upon standards
- C. Exposure of log data
- D. Lack of governance
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 597
Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?
- A. Creating a data classification scheme
- B. Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.
- C. Analyzing previous risk assessment results
- D. Identifying critical information assets
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is identifying critical information assets. A
BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events on the business processes,functions,
and resources. A BIA identifies the criticality, dependencies, recovery priorities, and recovery objectives of
the business processes, and quantifies the financial and non-financial impacts of disruption. Information assets
are the data, information, and knowledge that are essential for the operation and performance of the business
processes. Identifying critical information assets is the first step of the BIA, as it helps to determine which
information assets are vital for the continuity and recovery of the business processes, and which information
assets are most vulnerable or exposed to the disruptive events. Identifying critical information assets also
helps to scope and focus the BIA on the most important and relevant information assets, and to avoid
unnecessary or redundant analysis. Identifying events impacting continuity of operations, creating a data
classification scheme, and analyzing previous risk assessment results are not the first steps of the BIA, as they
are either the inputs or the outputs of the BIA, and they depend on the identification of critical information
assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
NEW QUESTION # 598
Which of The following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?
- A. Organizational goals
- B. Regulatory requirements
- C. Cost of controls
- D. Quantified risk triggers
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 599
An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?
- A. Introduce controls to the new threat environment.
- B. Implement loT device monitoring software.
- C. Engage external security reviews.
- D. Develop new loT risk scenarios.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 600
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
- A. Least privilege access
- B. Inability to edit
- C. Ability to overwrite
- D. Encryption
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 601
What type of policy would an organization use to forbid its employees from using organizational e-mail for personal use?
- A. Privacy policy
- B. Intellectual property policy
- C. Anti-harassment policy
- D. Acceptable use policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy is a set of rules applied by the owner/manager of a network, website or large computer system that restrict the ways in which the network site or system may be used. Acceptable Use Policies are an integral part of the framework of information security policies.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: These two policies are not related to Information system security.
D: Privacy policy is a statement or a legal document (privacy law) that discloses some or all of the ways a party gathers, uses, discloses and manages a customer or client's data.
NEW QUESTION # 602
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
- A. Resource Management Plan
- B. Communications Management Plan
- C. Risk Management Plan
- D. Explanation:
The Communications Management Plan defines, in regard to risk management, who will be available to share information on risks and responses throughout the project. The Communications Management Plan aims to define the communication necessities for the project and how the information will be circulated. The Communications Management Plan sets the communication structure for the project. This structure provides guidance for communication throughout the project's life and is updated as communication needs change. The Communication Managements Plan identifies and defines the roles of persons concerned with the project. It includes a matrix known as the communication matrix to map the communication requirements of the project. - E. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy does not address risk communications. Answer: A is incorrect. The Risk Management Plan defines risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring. Answer: D is incorrect. The Resource Management Plan does not define risk communications.
NEW QUESTION # 603
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