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New CheckPoint 156-590 Dumps & Questions Updated on 2026
NEW QUESTION # 33
Task: Confirm IPS protections are correctly layered when using shared layers.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- Go to Threat Prevention Policy > Layers tab.
2- Confirm shared layer is attached to Threat Prevention layer.
3- Double-check profile bindings per rule.
4- Publish and install to apply globally.
5- Use logs to validate consistent protection across gateways.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Task: Use SmartConsole to verify that the correct profile is applied to gateway traffic.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- Generate traffic that matches the Threat Prevention rule.
2- Go to Logs & Monitor, search by source/destination.
3- Confirm the Profile name in the log entry under Threat Prevention details.
4- Cross-reference with the rule base.
5- Adjust rules if wrong profile is triggered.
NEW QUESTION # 35
How can the IPS Blade be activated?
- A. In a ClusterXL deployment, the IPS Blade must be activated on the individual cluster nodes.
- B. The IPS Blade must be activated on the Management Server object and can be used on every gateway managed by this Management server.
- C. The IPS Blade must be activated on the individual Security Gateway object.
- D. No need to activate the IPS Blade as far as you have installed the correct IPS license on the gateways.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The IPS Blade must be activated on the individual Security Gateway object .
Check Point Software Blades are enabled on the enforcement point that inspects traffic, which is the Security Gateway or Cluster object, not merely on the Management Server. The official Threat Prevention guide states that to enable IPS, the administrator opens the Security Gateway / Cluster object , goes to General Properties > Network Security , selects IPS , and follows the wizard. For IPS package installation, Check Point also documents the sequence: enable IPS in the Security Gateway object, enable IPS in the corresponding Threat Prevention policy, and install the Threat Prevention Policy.
Licensing alone is therefore insufficient; a license permits use, but blade activation defines whether the gateway enforces IPS inspection. Option A is wrong because enabling the blade on the Management Server object does not activate IPS enforcement on all managed gateways. Option C is also wrong in standard ClusterXL management because blades are configured on the Cluster object, not separately and inconsistently on individual members. Operationally, enabling IPS on the correct gateway or cluster object ensures SmartConsole exposes the appropriate Threat Prevention controls and that policy installation targets the enforcement points. Reference topics: IPS Blade activation, Gateway object configuration, Threat Prevention policy installation, Cluster object management.
NEW QUESTION # 36
You have been asked to inform your CEO about last week's security incident.
What SmartEvent mechanism are you going to use?
- A. You have to build a view for last week and submit it to your CEO.
- B. You have to use Smart Event threat prevention View to get the information then extract it to csv format and then generate a pdf with this info.
- C. The executive reports generally contain abstract information without much technical detail. You have to use Smart Event Threat Prevention Report filtered for last week data.
- D. From the smart log you filter out traffic for last week and export it to a special report generate tool.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The executive reports generally contain abstract information without much technical detail. You have to use Smart Event Threat Prevention Report filtered for last week data . For executive communication, the correct SmartEvent mechanism is a report rather than a raw log export or interactive operational view. Check Point documentation explains that views and reports can be exported to PDF or CSV using defined filters and time frames, and that reports summarize network activity and Security Policy enforcement generated by Check Point products such as SmartEvent.
A CEO-level security-incident briefing should emphasize risk, timeline, impact, affected assets, attack category, prevention outcome, and recommended remediation, without requiring the recipient to interpret raw logs or technical blade details. A Threat Prevention Report filtered for last week provides the appropriate time- bounded summary. Option A is overly manual and uses a view plus CSV/PDF conversion rather than the report mechanism. Option C incorrectly shifts the workflow to SmartLog filtering and an external report generator. Option D uses a view, which is better suited for live or interactive operational analysis by administrators, not executive distribution. Reference topics: SmartEvent Reports, Threat Prevention Report, report time filters, executive reporting, exporting reports.
NEW QUESTION # 37
What is the main purpose of IPS Implied Exceptions?
- A. This defines the handling of traffic if no IPS rule applied to the appropriate packets.
- B. This defines the handling of traffic if you do not have an IPS Policy as part of an ordered layer.
- C. This defines the handling of traffic if you do not have an IPS Policy as part of an Inline layer.
- D. This feature is to prevent IPS Enforcement to interfere with important Security Gateway operations, such as Control Connections.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. This feature is to prevent IPS Enforcement to interfere with important Security Gateway operations, such as Control Connections . IPS Implied Exceptions are designed as safeguard exceptions for traffic that is necessary for the Security Gateway, management, or Check Point infrastructure to operate correctly. The purpose is not to define general unmatched-traffic behavior. Instead, they prevent IPS enforcement from disrupting essential control-plane and gateway-related communications. Check Point's Threat Prevention exception documentation shows that IPS exceptions are a formal part of policy tuning and that exception changes are enforced through policy installation.
The operational logic is straightforward: IPS protections can be aggressive, and some protections inspect protocol behavior that may resemble attack traffic. If critical control connections, management channels, clustering traffic, or internal gateway operations were treated exactly like ordinary data-plane traffic, IPS could interfere with the stability of the platform. Implied Exceptions provide a built-in safety layer to avoid that outcome. Options A, B, and D incorrectly describe rulebase cleanup behavior or layer absence behavior.
Those concerns are handled by policy structure, ordered layers, and default/cleanup behavior, not by IPS Implied Exceptions. Reference topics: IPS Exceptions, Implied IPS Exceptions, control connections, gateway operations, exception rule policy installation.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Task: Verify cloud connectivity for AV and AB updates.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- SSH into gateway.
2- Run: curl -v https://updates.checkpoint.com.
3- Ensure no proxy or DNS errors are shown.
4- Also test curl -v https://te.checkpoint.com.
5- Confirm successful connection and no certificate errors.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following protocols can be scanned by Anti-Virus?
- A. CIFS
- B. Telnet
- C. RemoteDesktop
- D. SNMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. CIFS . Check Point Anti-Virus scans file-transfer and content-bearing protocols, not arbitrary management or terminal protocols. The official Anti-Virus settings documentation lists the protocols Anti-Virus can scan as Web HTTP/HTTPS , FTP , SMB , and Mail SMTP or POP3 , with additional support for IMAP and POP3.
CIFS is closely associated with Microsoft file sharing and the SMB protocol family. In the exam context, CIFS maps to the file-sharing traffic class that Anti-Virus can inspect through SMB scanning. This is why CIFS is the correct option. Remote Desktop is an interactive remote-control protocol, not a file-inspection protocol for Anti-Virus scanning in this question. SNMP is a monitoring and management protocol and does not normally carry files for malware inspection. Telnet is an interactive terminal protocol and is not an Anti- Virus file-scanning protocol. The certification distinction is that Anti-Virus inspection focuses on files and content objects crossing supported protocols, especially web downloads, FTP transfers, SMB/CIFS file access, and mail attachments. Reference topics: Anti-Virus Settings, protocol scanning, SMB/CIFS inspection, file-transfer inspection, Threat Prevention protected scope.
NEW QUESTION # 40
What is the primary benefit of DNS Trap?
- A. Blocking outbound malicious DNS queries
- B. Blocking inbound malicious DNS queries
- C. Infected host identification
- D. Blocking known bad URLs
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Infected host identification . Malware DNS Trap is designed to help identify compromised clients by redirecting malicious DNS resolution to a controlled false IP address and then observing which internal hosts attempt to connect to that trap address. Check Point's R81.20 Threat Prevention guide states that Malware DNS Trap can be used to detect compromised clients by checking logs with connection attempts to the false IP address. It also notes that internal DNS servers can be added to better identify the origin of malicious DNS requests.
This makes the primary operational benefit host attribution. While DNS security can block or prevent malicious DNS-related activity, DNS Trap's distinctive value is showing which internal endpoint is likely infected or attempting malicious communication. Option B is more aligned with URL Filtering or URL reputation, not DNS Trap. Option C describes a blocking outcome, but it misses the key trap mechanism and attribution purpose. Option D is incorrect because the usual DNS Trap use case concerns internal clients generating suspicious outbound DNS or follow-up connections, not inbound malicious DNS queries.
Reference topics: Malware DNS Trap, Anti-Bot & Advanced DNS, false IP address, compromised-client detection, infected-host investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Task: Verify if Anti-Bot and Anti-Virus protections are active on a Security Gateway.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- SSH into the gateway.
2- Run: cpstat antimalware and cpstat anti-bot.
3- Confirm both blades are "Active" and signatures are "Up-to-date."
4- Check with cpview > Threat Prevention section.
5- Use watch -n 5 cpstat antimalware to monitor real-time status.
NEW QUESTION # 42
What is the purpose of the Packet Capture Track option?
- A. You can visualize traffic information with a third-party XDR tool.
- B. The security Gateway sends a packet capture file along with the log file. The former can by analyzed with an external tool, such as WireShark.
- C. You can specify a threshold value which serves as a limit after which the connection will be reset.
- D. You can specify the time after which the connection has to be reinitialized.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The Security Gateway sends a packet capture file along with the log file. The former can be analyzed with an external tool, such as Wireshark . Packet Capture is a tracking enhancement used when logs alone are not enough to understand the traffic that triggered a security event.
Check Point documentation explains that Packet Capture lets administrators capture network traffic and that the packet-capture content provides greater insight into the traffic that generated the log. When this feature is activated, the Security Gateway sends a packet-capture file with the log to the Log Server.
This is especially useful for IPS and Threat Prevention troubleshooting because analysts can inspect payload structure, headers, protocol behavior, retransmissions, and exact traffic context behind a prevention or detection event. Packet captures can then be opened in external protocol-analysis tools such as Wireshark for deeper investigation. Option A is incorrect because Packet Capture is not specifically an XDR visualization feature. Option C is unrelated to tracking and describes a timeout-style behavior. Option D describes threshold
/reset logic, not packet evidence collection. Reference topics: Packet Capture Track option, Logs & Monitor, Threat Prevention event analysis, IPS troubleshooting, packet-level evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which is NOT true of Threat Prevention policy application?
- A. Only applied after traffic is accepted by Access Control Policy
- B. Traffic is matched against all applicable layers at the same time
- C. Only applies first matched rule
- D. Applied as ordered layer
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Traffic is matched against all applicable layers at the same time . Threat Prevention policy evaluation is not best described as a flat simultaneous match against all applicable layers.
Check Point documentation explains that Threat Prevention Policy Layers are Ordered Layers , and that each ordered layer calculates its action separately from the other layers. In a single-layer policy package, the enforced rule is the first matched rule. In multiple-layer policy behavior, matching and enforcement are determined by the layer calculations and the applicable action logic, rather than by one undifferentiated simultaneous match model.
Option A is true because Threat Prevention inspection is applied after the Access Control policy allows the connection; traffic dropped or rejected by Access Control does not proceed to Threat Prevention enforcement.
Option C is true for a single Threat Prevention layer because the first matching rule is enforced. Option D is also true because Threat Prevention uses ordered policy-layer behavior. The false statement is therefore option B. Reference topics: Threat Prevention Policy, Ordered Layers, first-match rule behavior, Access Control before Threat Prevention, multi-layer enforcement logic.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Task: Configure General Protections for all protocols.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- Open Threat Prevention > Profiles > Edit selected profile.
2- Navigate to General Protections tab.
3- Enable protections like "Protocol Anomaly" or "Malicious Mail Content."
4- Set actions to Prevent/Detect based on severity.
5- Save and assign the profile to your policy.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Task: Simulate a malicious file download and validate AV detection.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- In test environment, download EICAR test file.
2- Monitor logs: blade:"Anti-Virus" AND action:"Prevented".
3- Confirm file type, source IP, and destination file path.
4- Check associated protection name.
5- Ensure AV blade action is set to "Prevent."
NEW QUESTION # 46
What are examples of evidence of compromises from inside network in conjunction with Bot-infected systems?
- A. Trying to access web resources using explicit proxy servers instead of transparent ones.
- B. Users surfing the website directly by IP address or using domains registered within the last 30 days.
- C. Repetitive access to the same specific Intranet web servers within business hours.
- D. Trying to access a web server via HTTP instead of HTTPS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Users surfing the website directly by IP address or using domains registered within the last 30 days . Anti-Bot is focused on post-infection compromise evidence: it identifies hosts that may already be infected and attempts to prevent command-and-control communication or other botnet behavior. Check Point documentation describes Anti-Bot as a Threat Prevention component that blocks botnet behavior and communication to Command and Control centers, while the broader Threat Prevention solution provides multi-layered pre- and post-infection defense.
Direct IP browsing and use of newly registered domains are suspicious because malware frequently avoids mature domain reputation controls, rotates infrastructure quickly, or contacts IP-based C2 endpoints directly to bypass domain-based filtering. Domains registered within a recent window are a common risk indicator because malicious campaigns often use disposable infrastructure with short operational lifetimes. Option B is not inherently evidence of bot infection; explicit proxy use may be a network design choice. Option C describes normal intranet access patterns. Option D may indicate weak encryption hygiene but is not specific evidence of compromise. In Anti-Bot analysis, indicators such as suspicious destinations, direct IP access, newly observed domains, and C2-like behavior help identify infected internal hosts. Reference topics: Anti- Bot, post-infection detection, Command and Control communication, suspicious domains, infected-host analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 47
What does the IPS Follow Protections feature do?
- A. Flags newly downloaded protections for review
- B. Highlights log entries for new protections
- C. Generates a report of activity from new protections
- D. Automatically activates new protections based on profile
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Automatically activates new protections based on profile . IPS protections are governed by Threat Prevention profiles, and those profiles determine which protections are activated for a rule or policy. Check Point documentation states that a Threat Prevention profile determines which protections are activated and which Software Blades are enabled for the specified rule or policy. For newly downloaded IPS protections, Check Point documents that automatic IPS update behavior can use the profile settings as the default action for those newly downloaded protections.
This is the core logic behind the answer: IPS Follow Protections aligns newly available protections with the active profile's protection-selection logic instead of requiring the administrator to manually evaluate and activate every update. The profile already contains the criteria for activation, including threat severity, confidence, and performance considerations. Option B describes a different review-oriented workflow, commonly associated with marking protections for follow-up or staging. Option C is incorrect because reporting is a SmartEvent or logging function, not the purpose of Follow Protections. Option D is also incorrect because highlighting log entries does not activate enforcement. Reference topics: IPS profile settings, newly updated IPS protections, automatic update behavior, activation according to profile settings, IPS protection lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Task: Test connection to Check Point Update Services.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- SSH into Gateway.
2- Use: curl -v https://updates.checkpoint.com.
3- Validate certificate and connection success.
4- Check DNS resolution of update servers.
5- Use SmartConsole > Logs to monitor blocked connections if failed.
NEW QUESTION # 49
What does the profile cleanup option do?
- A. Adjusts all settings to Detect only
- B. Removes corrupt updates
- C. Removes all Administrator overrides
- D. Deletes all Exemptions
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Removes all Administrator overrides . Profile Cleanup is a Threat Prevention profile hygiene tool used mainly in IPS protection management. When administrators manually override protections during tuning, exception handling, false-positive analysis, emergency hardening, or staged deployment, those manual changes can accumulate and cause the profile to deviate from its intended design.
Check Point's IPS Protections documentation states that the Profile Cleanup window lets the administrator select actions such as Remove all user modified and Clear all staging , then install the Threat Prevention Policy.
This directly maps to removing administrator overrides. The option does not automatically set all protections to Detect only; Detect is an action used in specific protection or staging contexts, not the purpose of Profile Cleanup. It also does not delete exemptions, because exception rules are separate policy constructs. It does not repair or remove corrupt updates; IPS update package handling is managed through the update and revert workflow. Profile Cleanup is best understood as a reset mechanism: it clears manual activation or staging deviations so the profile can return to its baseline activation policy and blade settings. Reference topics: IPS Protections, Profile Cleanup, Remove all user modified, Clear all staging, Threat Prevention Policy installation.
NEW QUESTION # 50
In Anti-Virus, what is one of the benefits of Deep Scanning?
- A. Minimal resource utilization
- B. Best performance
- C. Thorough protection
- D. Minimal buffering
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Thorough protection . Deep Scanning is selected when the organization wants broader and more complete Anti-Virus inspection, even at the cost of additional processing. Check Point's Anti-Virus settings documentation shows that administrators can configure file handling to process file types known to contain malware, process specific file-type families, or process all file types . It also states that enabling deep inspection scanning impacts performance.
This is the key tradeoff: Deep Scanning improves protection depth by expanding the set of files and content types subjected to inspection, but it is not the best choice for minimal latency or lowest resource consumption.
Options A, B, and C are therefore incorrect because Deep Scanning is not primarily a performance optimization. It can require more CPU, memory, buffering, file classification, and scanning time, especially when paired with archive scanning, HTTPS Inspection, or large file transfers. Its benefit is security completeness: it reduces blind spots by inspecting more file content and providing stronger protection against malware hidden in less common or less obvious file types. Reference topics: Anti-Virus Settings, File Types, Deep Inspection Scanning, process all file types, performance impact, thorough malware protection.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which process is responsible for communication with the Check Point ThreatCloud for the sake of Anti-Virus Protection Update?
- A. The Threat Emulation Daemon "ted"
- B. The Resource Advisor Daemon (RAD)
- C. The PSL AV-Daemon (pslavd)
- D. The CPAS Daemon (cpasd)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The CPAS Daemon (cpasd) . In the course-guide context, cpasd is the process associated with Anti-Virus communication toward Check Point ThreatCloud for protection-update and classification purposes. The functional reason is that Anti-Virus file inspection depends on Check Point's ThreatSpect and ThreatCloud intelligence pipeline. Check Point documentation explains that each Security Gateway has a Malware database and a local cache; when the cache has no answer, it queries the ThreatCloud repository. For Anti-Virus, the signature is sent for file classification.
The ThreatCloud network is dynamically updated and distributes attack information that can convert zero-day attack data into known signatures that Anti-Virus can block. This explains why the communication process matters: AV enforcement is not limited to a static local signature set; it relies on cloud-assisted reputation, classification, and continuously updated intelligence. The distractors do not match this function. RAD is mainly associated with resource categorization and URL/Application intelligence. pslavd is not the ThreatCloud update communication process named in this question. ted belongs to Threat Emulation, not Anti-Virus protection updates. Reference topics: Anti-Virus, CPAS/cpasd, ThreatCloud repository, Malware database, local cache, file classification.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Task: Test core protections by triggering ICMP flood attack.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- From test machine: ping -f .
2- SmartConsole > Logs > Filter blade:IPS AND type:DOS.
3- Confirm logs with action "Prevent."
4- Verify protection was from Core Protections list.
5- Adjust rate limit in protections if needed.
NEW QUESTION # 53
What are the three Preconfigured Threat Prevention Profiles?
- A. Inbound, Outbound, Etherbound.
- B. North-South, East-West, Lateral Movement.
- C. Perimeter, Datacenter, East-West Communication.
- D. Basic, Optimized, Strict.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Basic, Optimized, Strict . Check Point supplies out-of-the-box Threat Prevention profiles to give administrators predefined security/performance baselines. The official Threat Prevention Profiles section states that administrators can clone a selected profile but cannot change the out-of-the-box profiles: Basic, Optimized, and Strict .
These profiles represent different operating postures. Basic is designed for reliable protection with lower performance impact. Optimized is the default-style balanced approach, providing strong protection for common products and protocols while preserving gateway performance. Strict provides wider coverage and more aggressive protection selection, but can increase inspection cost and may require closer tuning. The other answer choices describe architectural traffic directions or deployment zones, not the official preconfigured profile names. "Perimeter," "Datacenter," and "East-West" are useful design concepts, especially in modern segmentation and Autonomous Threat Prevention discussions, but they are not the three preconfigured Custom Threat Prevention profiles in this question. From a certification perspective, the distinction matters because profiles are selected as the Action in Threat Prevention rules and determine which protections and blades are active. Reference topics: Threat Prevention Profiles, out-of-the-box profiles, Basic profile, Optimized profile, Strict profile, profile cloning.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Task: Enable logging of blocked malware downloads in the profile.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- Edit the custom profile > Anti-Virus tab.
2- Ensure action for medium/high confidence is set to Prevent.
3- Enable Track = Log.
4- Save and push policy.
5- Review logs by filtering blade:"Anti-Virus" and action:"Prevented".
NEW QUESTION # 55
Task: Compare two custom profiles for audit validation.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- Export both profiles via SmartConsole.
2- Use external diff tool or compare policy settings manually.
3- Focus on blade settings, confidence levels, and exceptions.
4- Document differences and justify configuration choices.
5- Store comparison for audit records.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Task: Tag custom protections for better search and grouping.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation.Explanation:
1- Go to IPS Protections > Create New or Edit existing one.
2- Add tags like "custom", "internal", or "web-servers".
3- Save and update the profile with these protections.
4- Use tag filters to easily manage them later.
5- Export protections by tag if needed.
NEW QUESTION # 57
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